Island Man
JoinedPosts by Island Man
-
99
Cite one scripture in the N.T. that chargers Christians to be witnesses of / for Jehovah.....Not one.using K.I ./ WTB&TS
by smiddy3 ini think the wtb&ts publication titled "the kingdom interlinear of the christian greek scriptures" speaks for itself.. the word for word translation of the greek into english.. that publication does not even contain the name or word jehovah either in hebrew letters or greek letters anywhere in the word for word texts.. their is not one scripture in the n.t.
where christians ,followers of jesus christ are instructed to be witnesses of jehovah ,however there are something like twenty scriptures that explicitly state followers of jesus christ are to be witnesses of, for, and about jesus...
-
-
-
99
Cite one scripture in the N.T. that chargers Christians to be witnesses of / for Jehovah.....Not one.using K.I ./ WTB&TS
by smiddy3 ini think the wtb&ts publication titled "the kingdom interlinear of the christian greek scriptures" speaks for itself.. the word for word translation of the greek into english.. that publication does not even contain the name or word jehovah either in hebrew letters or greek letters anywhere in the word for word texts.. their is not one scripture in the n.t.
where christians ,followers of jesus christ are instructed to be witnesses of jehovah ,however there are something like twenty scriptures that explicitly state followers of jesus christ are to be witnesses of, for, and about jesus...
-
-
Island Man
[just as you can tell me that I can't say for certain that the originals and those that followed up until the oldest now on hand did have the DN there, I can tell you that you can't say for certain that it was not there.]
johnamos, the NT authors were quoting from the Greek Septuagint version of the OT. We know this because when the NT quotes the OT the wording is identical to that of the Greek Septuagint. Add to this the fact that the typical Greek Septuagint did not translate YHWH into any Greek equivalent name, but instead used the Greek for "Lord" (kurious). This is why every single NT text quoting a DN text of the OT uses "LORD" in places where the Hebrew text of the OT uses YHWH. They were not quoting from the Hebrew text. They were quoting of the common Greek translation of the OT.
Secondly, it is inconceivable that the name was originally in the Greek text of the NT but was thoroughly removed from every single copy with not a single one surviving. To think that there was a meticulous process of finding and destroying every single copy of the NT with the name YHWH was undertaken and successful so that no trace survives, is laughably ridiculous - on par with the most ridiculous conspiracy theories!
The evidence points to the very reasonable conclusion that the divine name was never in the NT because the authors were taking their OT quotes from a Greek translation that did not use the divine name. Saying that it was in the NT and then later removed with perfection, is to make an extraordinary claim that flies in the face of facts and reason.
-
21
News from the 2019 Annual Meeting
by RubaDub inthe annual meeting (2019) is happening as i am posting this.. any comments yet or information from what is being presented?.
rub a dub.
-
-
Island Man
Speculations of what this year's meeting will be like from a P[O/I]MI website:
-
52
Ruin those Ruining th Earth
by peacefulpete init has been mentioned before but since we have been discussing environmental issues on another thread, i thought it might be timely to discuss rev 11:18 which has recently become a popular text for those christians concerned about environmental threats of pollution and climate change.
is this passage being interpreted correctly?
did the writer somehow anticipate the modern environmental situation, or did he intend something more in keeping with the bible's general concerns of morality and sin?.
-
-
Island Man
I concur. It's ridiculous to think the author was referring only to or especially to the ruination of the physical natural environment. The context of the statement suggest a very broad meaning. Why would the author mention God rewarding all God's servants and those who fear his name, and then turn around mention only polluters of the environment facing adverse judgment? Makes no sense. Those "ruining the earth" must refer to all sinners.
You mentioned Genesis 6 where it says the "earth was ruined" in the sight of God. I believe the author of Revelation 11:18 chose this particular wording to deliberately allude to that verse back in Genesis 6 as if to say that the wickedness at the end would be as the wickedness when God brought to flood; and the slaughter of the wicked will likewise be great as with the flood. 2 Peter does the same kind of thing. In fact, throughout Revelation the author alludes to passages in the OT.
-
25
Political Correctness and Censorship / Banning Books
by TerryWalstrom inbanned books?censorship?.
let’s say you live in a land where the rule is: you can’t offend anyone.okay, fair enough.
let’s take a look at what follows (implicit in this rule).. if you are speaking to 10 people, is it okay to offend 1 in 10?
-
-
Island Man
Only provable lies should be censored. Provably factual claims should not be censored. unprovable or disprovable subjective beliefs and opinions should not be censored - to the extent that they are being presented as belief and opinion and not as fact.
For example, I should not be able to advertise a homeopathic product as being an effective, curative treatment for cancer and giving all manner of provably false medical claims to back my advertisement. That should be illegal.
But I should be able to say that I believe that taking this product will cure cancer without presenting any false factoids to support my belief.
Here's why free speech, in the context of permitting the dissemination of offensive beliefs and opinions is good: The offensive beliefs and opinions get to be scrutinized and criticized with facts and logic, thus exposing them as being foolish or false. In such an environment, it is near impossible for tyrants to rise and mislead the masses and blinding the collective mind and conscience by silencing dissenters.
On the other hand, censoring information just because it's offensive - that's equivalent to banning a medical treatment just because it has unpleasant side effects, regardless of how effective the treatment is and regardless of how harmless the side effects are. What happens when a truthful and beneficial statement is banned because it is offensive because the offended is indoctrinated into a twisted and harmful mindset? The beneficial information that can free the indoctrinated is suppressed and the twisted, harmful mindset persists to the further detriment of society!
So permitting free speech creates an egalitarian, self-correcting environment where survival of the fittest ideas - fittest to reality - pertains, with ideas being vetted, challenged and rejected or accepted by the collective judgement of a plurality of diverse minds.
Censorship creates dictatorial environment where survival of the ideas of those with power, pertains. The validity of an idea is easily relegated to lesser importance than the preferences of those in power.
-
14
Mark 13: 1-8 ...Not a composite sign/ two-fold prophecy scripture
by RULES & REGULATIONS inthis brother starts off with reading the following scriptures from the book of mark 13:1-8.
3 while he was sitting on the mount of olives across from the temple, peter, james, john, and andrew asked him privately, 4 “tell us, when will these things happen?
and what will be the sign when all these things are about to be accomplished?”.
-
-
Island Man
It's obvious that the account was referring to events that would happen around the time of the destruction of the temple - within "[that] generation" just as Jesus said. The Great Tribulation can have only one fulfilment because it is described as tribulation 'such as has not occurred before, nor will occur again.'
Another thing: the wars, food shortages, earthquakes - these are not part of a composite sign. Jesus was actually telling his followers to not view them as a sign - that they do not mean the end is imminent. Watchtower is actually doing exactly what Jesus was telling his followers not to do!
In this same synoptic gospel account, Jesus warns his followers against believing and following after false prophets who would come in his name and claim the time is at hand. Think about this: If the food shortages, earthquakes, wars, etc were truly a sign that the time is at hand then why are those prophets wrong for making such proclamations? Why is Jesus discrediting them? Answer: Because both the false prophets and the bad world conditions are wrong in their message that the end is at hand. Jesus was telling his follower: 'don't be misled by world conditions and don't be misled by false prophets'.
-
56
Things you will never hear a good Jehovah’s Witness say (to another Jehovah’s Witness)
by hoser ini’ll start it off.
boy did we get drunk last night.
-
-
Island Man
Elder to publisher: "Bro. Pioneer we're concerned that you're not devoting any time to assisting the poor and needy in shelters or soup kitchens."
-
27
2018 Annual Meeting
by EyesOpenHeartBroken indoes anybody have any word on the 2018 annual meeting?
i assume something new will be rolled out, since they are having all the congregations do special weekend streaming.. my guess is that there will be some major "new light" concerning the memorial, partaking, anointed, etc.
i would guess that they will say all baptized believers should partake.
-
-
Island Man
Bumping this thread because I think it's timely.
-
25
Thought Provoking Question to a JW?
by Solzhenitsyn indid jesus ever utter the name jehovah?.
and if he didn't what are the implications?
nwt answers don't count but feel free to use the kingdom interlinear.
-
-
Island Man
There's no record of Jesus uttering the divine name in any Greek manuscript. Jesus always referred to God as "Father" and "God". When he quoted OT passages that use the divine name in Hebrew, he - and the NT writers - quoted from the Greek Septuagint and the Greek Septuagint of the day used "Kyrios" ("Lord") in place of the divine name. This is why the divine name is totally absent from the NT. It was never in there to begin with because common use of the divine name had ceased by the first century and the people were using the Greek Septuagint which substitutes "Lord" in place of the divine name.
John 17:26 isn't a reference to declaring the appellation "Jehovah"/"Yahweh"/The tetragrammaton. Rather, it is a reference to declaring God's character or reputation. Jesus made God's character or reputation known to the people through his word and deed. This is what it meant by him making God's name known. There are many references to "name" in the NT that refer, not to God's appellation, but to his character or reputation. Such as the phrase - "a people for his name" which means a people whose way of life is befitting of the character of God; a people who uphold God's reputation instead of bringing reproach on him; a people who are holy just as God is holy; etc.
-
81
How Long Before They Introduce Tithing?
by pale.emperor inwhen i was a full-on believing jw i had an obsessive fascination with mormonism.
i read, studied and watched their propaganda with strange interest as well as their apostate mormon books.
i have to say, they have a good scam going claiming that "the lord reintroduced tithing" in the modern age.
-
-
Island Man
How long before they introduce tithing?
Watchtower annual meeting is only 11 days away...